UPSC CSE · General Studies Paper I

UPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations – Page 2

100 questions from the UPSC Prelims 2025 General Studies Paper I paper, in paper order, each with its answer and a full explanation. Difficulty split: 17% easy, 67% medium and 16% hard. Subjects covered: Science and Technology, Environment and Ecology, International Relations, Modern History, Ancient History and more.

  1. Consider the following statements:

    Statement I:
    Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television, screens and computer monitors.

    Statement II:
    Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

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  2. Consider the following statements:

    I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028.

    II. 'Kavach' an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

    III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

    Which of the statements given above are NOT correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Show answer

    Answer: A. I and II only

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  3. Consider the following space missions:

    I. Axiom-4

    II. SpaDeX

    III. Gaganyaan

    How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: C. All the three

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  4. With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:

    Aircraft type : Description

    I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft

    II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft

    III. C-17 Globe- : Military transport aircraft master III

    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Only two

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  5. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

    1. silver iodide and potassium iodide
    2. silver nitrate and potassium iodide
    3. silver iodide and potassium nitrate
    4. silver nitrate and potassium chloride
    Show answer

    Answer: A. silver iodide and potassium iodide

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  6. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

    I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

    II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer

    Answer: A. I only

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  7. Consider the following statements:

    I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

    II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

    III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Show answer

    Answer: C. I and III only

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  8. Consider the following statements:

    I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

    II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Neither I nor II

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  9. Consider the following statements:

    Statement I:
    In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

    Statement II:
    In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

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  10. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

    1. The European Union
    2. The World Bank
    3. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
    4. The Food and Agriculture Organization
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The European Union

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  11. Suppose the revenue expenditure of the Government is Rs.80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are Rs.60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of Rs.10,000 crores and interest payments of Rs.6,000 crores.

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    I. Revenue deficit is Rs.20,000 crores.

    II. Fiscal deficit is Rs.10,000 crores.

    III. Primary deficit is Rs.4,000 crores.

    Select the correct answer code given below.

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Show answer

    Answer: D. I, II and III

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  12. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transport corridor, which will connect:

    1. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
    2. India to Central Asia via China
    3. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
    4. India to Europe through Azerbaijan
    Show answer

    Answer: A. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

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  13. Consider the following statements:

    Statement I:
    Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

    Statement II:
    Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

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  14. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places in the world where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C.

    Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

    I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.

    II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

    Select the correct answer code given below.

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Both I and II

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  15. A country's fiscal deficit stands at Rs.50,000 crores. It is receiving Rs.10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are Rs.1,500 crores.

    What is the gross primary deficit?

    1. Rs.48,500 crores
    2. Rs.51,500 crores
    3. Rs.58,500 crores
    4. None of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Rs.48,500 crores

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  16. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

    I. It has recommended grants of Rs.4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.

    II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.

    III. Rs.45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all the States for carrying out agricultural reforms.

    IV. It reintroduced tax effort criterion to reward fiscal performance.

    Select the correct answer code given below.

    1. I, II and III
    2. I, II and IV
    3. I, III and IV
    4. II, III and IV
    Show answer

    Answer: C. I, III and IV

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  17. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

    I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.

    II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.

    III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Show answer

    Answer: C. I and III only

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  18. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

    I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.

    II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

    III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I only
    2. I and II
    3. I and III
    4. III only
    Show answer

    Answer: A. I only

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  19. Consider the following countries:

    I. United Arab Emirates

    II. France

    III. Germany

    IV. Singapore

    V. Bangladesh

    How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

    1. Only two
    2. Only three
    3. Only four
    4. All the five
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Only three

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  20. Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana’:

    I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

    II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroots levels.

    III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under capacity building.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. I and III only
    3. II and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Show answer

    Answer: D. I, II and III

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  21. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

    I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.

    II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

    III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Show answer

    Answer: C. I and III only

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  22. Consider the following pairs:

    1. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks

    2. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act

    3. Tripura : Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Only two

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  23. With reference to India, consider the following:

    I. The Inter-State Council

    II. The National Security Council

    III. Zonal Councils

    How many of the above are established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Only one

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  24. Consider the following statements:

    I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

    II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer

    Answer: A. I only

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  25. Consider the following pairs:

    1. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of State Policy

    2. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties

    3. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: C. All the three

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  26. Consider the following statements:

    With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:

    I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.

    II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Neither I nor II

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  27. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

    Organization : Union Ministry

    1. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry

    2. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries

    3. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: D. None

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  28. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

    I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule

    II. Extent of the executive power of a State

    III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

    For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Show answer

    Answer: A. I and II only

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  29. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

    I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

    II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

    III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
    Show answer

    Answer: D. I, II and III

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  30. Consider the following activities:

    I. Production of crude oil

    II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum

    III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products

    IV. Production of natural gas

    How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All the four
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Only two

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  31. “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of:

    1. the Champaran Satyagraha
    2. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
    3. attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
    4. the launch of the Quit India Movement
    Show answer

    Answer: B. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

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  32. The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of:

    1. carnelian
    2. clay
    3. bronze
    4. gold
    Show answer

    Answer: C. bronze

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  33. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

    1. C. R. Das
    2. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
    3. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
    4. M. A. Jinnah
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

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  34. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

    1. The Poona Pact
    2. The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
    3. Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
    4. Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The Poona Pact

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  35. Consider the following fruits:

    I. Papaya

    II. Pineapple

    III. Guava

    How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: C. All the three

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  36. Consider the following countries:

    I. United Kingdom

    II. Denmark

    III. New Zealand

    IV. Australia

    V. Brazil

    How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

    1. All the five
    2. Only four
    3. Only three
    4. Only two
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Only three

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  37. Consider the following statements:

    I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

    II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer

    Answer: A. I only

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  38. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

    1. ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
    2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
    3. Bhaskarrao Jadhav
    4. Dinkarrao Javalkar
    Show answer

    Answer: A. ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

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  39. Consider the following pairs:

    Country : Resource-rich in

    I. Botswana : Diamond

    II. Chile : Lithium

    III. Indonesia : Nickel

    In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: C. All the three

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  40. Consider the following pairs:

    Region : Country

    I. Mallorca : Italy

    II. Normandy : Spain

    III. Sardinia : France

    In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: D. None

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