UPSC CSE · General Studies Paper I

UPSC Prelims 2012 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

98 questions from the UPSC Prelims 2012 General Studies Paper I paper, in paper order, each with its answer and a full explanation. Difficulty split: 29% easy, 44% medium and 28% hard. Subjects covered: Polity, Environment and Ecology, International Relations, Science and Technology, Geography and more.

  1. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

    1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.

    2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.

    3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 1 and 2 only

    Read the full explanation →

  2. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

    1. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
    2. to let opposition members collect information from ministers
    3. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
    4. to postpone proceedings to check inappropriate behaviour
    Show answer

    Answer: A. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

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  3. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian Agriculture?

    1. NBA checks biopiracy and protects indigenous and traditional genetic resources.

    2. NBA directly monitors and supervises scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.

    3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without approval of NBA.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

    Read the full explanation →

  4. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which provisions of the Constitution of India?

    1. Right to healthy environment as part of Right to life under Article 21.

    2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in Scheduled Areas under Article 275(1).

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  5. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

    1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste-water.

    2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources will be met by adopting technologies that allow use of ocean water.

    3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.

    4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw ground-water will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 1 and 2 only

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  6. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

    1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.

    2. Organising village Panchayats.

    3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.

    4. Securing for all workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.

    Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

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  7. Consider the following statements:

    1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.

    2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.

    3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: D. None

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  8. With reference to consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

    2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.

    3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

    Read the full explanation →

  9. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

    1. He/She holds office during the pleasure of the President.

    2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of election but has to become a member within six months.

    3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. None
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 3 only

    Read the full explanation →

  10. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

    1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.

    2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of Parliament or State Legislature.

    3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.

    4. A dispute between two or more States.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 4
    4. 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 4

    Read the full explanation →

  11. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

    1. Bacteria

    2. Fungi

    3. Flowering plants

    Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

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  12. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.

    2. The combustible gases generated consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.

    3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  13. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

    1. It inactivates/kills harmful microorganisms in water.

    2. It removes all undesirable odours from the water.

    3. It quickens sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves water clarity.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

    Read the full explanation →

  14. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

    1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.

    2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.

    3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.

    4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 only

    Read the full explanation →

  15. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what are still the sources of lead poisoning?

    1. Smelting units

    2. Pens and pencils

    3. Paints

    4. Hair oils and cosmetics

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

    Read the full explanation →

  16. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.

    2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.

    3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

    Read the full explanation →

  17. Consider the following statements:

    Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

    1. In the production of plastic foams.

    2. In the production of tubeless tyres.

    3. In cleaning certain electronic components.

    4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 4 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1, 3 and 4 only

    Read the full explanation →

  18. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter?

    1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.

    2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.

    3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

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  19. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe?

    1. Detection of microwaves in space.

    2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space.

    3. Movement of asteroids in space.

    4. Occurrence of supernova explosion in space.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. None of the above can be cited as evidence
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 and 2

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  20. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

    1. The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles.
    2. Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space.
    3. Moisture in the upper layers prevents them.
    4. None of the above statements is correct.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles.

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  21. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

    1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.

    2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had beginning of 3rd century AD.

    3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.

    4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1, 3 and 4 only

    Read the full explanation →

  22. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

    1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment.

    2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas.

    3. Denial of efficacy of rituals.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

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  23. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?

    1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking.

    2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts.

    3. Increasing the government spending on public health.

    4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 2, 3 and 4 only

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  24. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

    1. three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent.
    2. three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified.
    3. Three main styles of Indian temple architecture.
    4. Three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Three main styles of Indian temple architecture.

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  25. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because:

    1. The Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces.
    2. Emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made working impossible.
    3. There were widespread communal disturbances.
    4. None of the statements given above is correct.
    Show answer

    Answer: D. None of the statements given above is correct.

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  26. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?

    1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup.

    2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy.

    3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization.

    4. Conducting the delivery of baby.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

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  27. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

    1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.

    2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims.

    3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

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  28. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

    1. Different social reform groups united to discuss larger social issues.
    2. INC did not want to include social reforms in deliberations and formed a separate body.
    3. Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade decided to unite social reform groups.
    4. None of the above is correct.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. INC did not want to include social reforms in deliberations and formed a separate body.

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  29. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

    1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India.

    2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation.

    3. The Independent Labour Party.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

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  30. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

    1. To change state boundaries and names.
    2. To authorize Parliament to legislate on State List and create All India Services.
    3. To amend Presidential election procedure.
    4. To determine Election Commission functions.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. To authorize Parliament to legislate on State List and create All India Services.

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  31. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

    1. By setting up large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres.

    2. By strengthening self-help groups and providing skill development.

    3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 2 only

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  32. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

    1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level.

    2. Purchasing power parity at national level.

    3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

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  33. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

    1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design.

    2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in consonance with India’s demographic dividend.

    3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

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  34. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth manufacturing sector?

    1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones.

    2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’.

    3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

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  35. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

    1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before Parliament.

    2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund only after passing Appropriation Bill.

    3. Provision of supplementary grants and vote-on-account.

    4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.

    5. Introducing Finance Bill in Parliament.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4 only
    3. 3, 4 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

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  36. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

    1. Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations.
    2. Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion.
    3. Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award.
    4. None of the statements given above is correct.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award.

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  37. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:

    1. Low birthrate with low death rate.

    2. High birthrate with high death rate.

    3. High birthrate with low death rate.

    Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2, 3
    2. 2, 1, 3
    3. 2, 3, 1
    4. 3, 2, 1
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 2, 3, 1

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  38. In India, in the overall index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?

    1. Cement

    2. Fertilizers

    3. Natural Gas

    4. Refinery products

    5. Textiles

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 5 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

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  39. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

    1. Directive Principles of State Policy.

    2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies.

    3. Fifth Schedule.

    4. Sixth Schedule.

    5. Seventh Schedule.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3, 4 and 5 only
    3. 1, 2 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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  40. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant?

    1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and preventing desertification.

    2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.

    3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.

    4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

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  41. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?

    1. Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops.
    2. Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field.
    3. Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together.
    4. None of the above.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together.

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  42. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:

    1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.

    2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.

    3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.

    Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

    1. Arunachal Pradesh
    2. Assam
    3. Himachal Pradesh
    4. Uttarakhand
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Arunachal Pradesh

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  43. Consider the following crops of India:

    1. Cowpea

    2. Green gram

    3. Pigeon pea

    Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

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  44. Consider the following factors:

    1. Rotation of the Earth

    2. Air pressure and wind

    3. Density of ocean water

    4. Revolution of the Earth

    Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3

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  45. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:

    1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.

    2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

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  46. Consider the following crops of India:

    1. Groundnut

    2. Sesamum

    3. Pearl millet

    Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

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  47. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

    1. Deep gorges

    2. U-turn river courses

    3. Parallel mountain ranges

    4. Steep gradients causing landsliding

    Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4 only
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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  48. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because

    1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface.

    2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere.

    3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

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  49. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

    1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.

    2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.

    3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.

    4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

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  50. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

    1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of Parliament when emergency is declared.

    2. CAG reports are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

    3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies.

    4. CAG has judicial powers for prosecuting offenders.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 2 and 3 only

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  51. The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is

    1. To promote institutional deliveries.

    2. To provide monetary assistance to the mother.

    3. To provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

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  52. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

    1. Need not necessarily be a member of one House but must become member within six months.
    2. Need not necessarily be member but must become member of Lok Sabha within six months.
    3. Must be member of one House.
    4. Must be member of Lok Sabha.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Need not necessarily be a member of one House but must become member within six months.

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  53. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

    1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.

    2. When orders are laid before Lok Sabha or State Legislature, they cannot effect modifications.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

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  54. Consider the following:

    1. Hotels and restaurants

    2. Motor transport undertakings

    3. Newspaper establishments

    4. Private medical institutions

    The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State Insurance Scheme?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 4 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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  55. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President to cause to be laid before Parliament which of the following?

    1. Recommendation of the Union Finance Commission.

    2. Report of the Public Accounts Committee.

    3. Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.

    4. Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1, 3 and 4 only

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  56. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of Parliament during the passage of

    1. Ordinary Legislation

    2. Money Bill

    3. Constitution Amendment Bill

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 only

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  57. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in reduction of rural poverty in India?

    1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in backward regions.

    2. DRDAs undertake scientific study of poverty and malnutrition.

    3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination.

    4. DRDAs ensure effective utilization of anti-poverty funds.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 3 and 4 only

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  58. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

    1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

    2. To protect weaker sections from social injustice.

    3. To develop scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.

    4. To strive towards excellence.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 1, 3 and 4 only

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  59. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

    1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

    2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

    3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

    4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

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  60. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

    1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.

    2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.

    3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

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